Medical Council of Canada MCCQE : MCCQE Part 1 Exam

MCCQE real exams

Exam Code: MCCQE

Exam Name: MCCQE Part 1 Exam

Updated: Jun 10, 2026

Q & A: 357 Questions and Answers

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Sample Questions:

1. A 24-year-old nulligravid woman presents to the office with an absence of menstruation since discontinuing her oral contraceptives 8 months ago. She previously had a regular menstrual cycle when taking oral contraceptives for the past 10 years but stopped because of headaches, which have only gotten worse since.
She also noticed mild breast discharge for the past several months. Which one of the following examination findings is most likely?

A) Nodular breast irregularities
B) Low BMI
C) Presence of severe hirsutism
D) Abnormal visual field testing results


2. A 45-year-old man presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding his obsessive-compulsive disorder. He currently takes a high dosage of paroxetine, which he would like to discontinue because he feels well. His condition has been stable taking this medication since he was discharged from inpatient care 2 years ago.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

A) Switch paroxetine to sertraline.
B) Discontinue paroxetine and refer for supportive psychotherapy.
C) Maintain the current dosage of paroxetine.
D) Reduce the dosage of paroxetine by 50%.


3. A 72-year-old woman presents with swelling of her right leg that developed overnight. She had an abdominal hysterectomy 10 days ago. On examination, there is pitting edema of the leg that extends from the foot to the groin. The calf is 3 cm larger in diameter than the calf on the left leg. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Inadvertent ligation of the iliac vein.
B) Iliofemoral vein thrombosis.
C) Phlegmasia cerulea dolens.
D) Superficial thrombophlebitis.
E) Angioedema of the leg.


4. A 54-year-old woman presents to your office to discuss breast cancer screening. She is asymptomatic with no history of breast cancer. She had a fibroadenoma removed when she was 24 years old. The patient is not on any medications. Her family history is significant for a great-aunt with breast cancer. The patient has not had genetic testing but had normal breast screening 2 years ago. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A) Reassurance.
B) Mammography.
C) Positron emission tomography scan.
D) Monthly self-breast examination.
E) Breast magnetic resonance imaging.


5. A 60-year-old man presents because of a 6-month history of involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements.
His medical history is significant for schizophrenia, which has been very stable with haloperidol for the past
20 years. When educating the patient about these particular symptoms, which one of the following statements is accurate?

A) These movements occur in the majority of patients who are taking antipsychotics
B) The symptoms will gradually decrease in intensity as he gets older
C) His condition is potentially irreversible
D) Anticholinergics are effective treatments for this condition


Solutions:

Question # 1
Answer: D
Question # 2
Answer: C
Question # 3
Answer: B
Question # 4
Answer: B
Question # 5
Answer: C

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