ECCouncil 312-50v13 Dumps - The Sure Way To Pass Exam
312-50v13 Exam Questions (Updated 2026) 100% Real Question Answers
NEW QUESTION # 320
At a Chicago-based healthcare provider, security engineer Emily reviews the migration of critical applications to a cloud service. During her evaluation, she notes that administrators can provision new servers, increase storage, and expand compute power instantly through a web dashboard without any manual involvement from the cloud provider. Which NIST-defined characteristic of cloud computing best explains this capability?
- A. Resource pooling
- B. Measured service
- C. On-demand self-service
- D. Broad network access
Answer: C
Explanation:
The capability described-administrators instantly provisioning servers, storage, and compute through a web portal without needing the provider to manually intervene-is the NIST cloud characteristic called on-demand self-service. In NIST's cloud computing model, on-demand self-service means a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities (such as server time and network storage) as needed automatically, without requiring human interaction with each service provider.
The scenario explicitly highlights that the admins can scale resources "instantly" through a dashboard and that there is "no manual involvement from the cloud provider." That is exactly what on-demand self-service captures: rapid provisioning driven by the customer through automated orchestration and APIs/portals.
Why the other options are not the best match:
Broad network access (D) means cloud capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms by heterogeneous platforms (mobile, laptops, workstations). While the dashboard is accessed over the network, broad access is about reachability and standard access mechanisms, not the self- provisioning behavior.
Resource pooling (C) refers to the provider's multi-tenant model where physical/virtual resources are pooled and dynamically assigned; it explains how the provider can offer elasticity, but the user-facing "provision it yourself" aspect is on-demand self-service.
Measured service (B) refers to metering and monitoring resource usage for billing/optimization; it doesn't explain instant self-provisioning.
Therefore, the characteristic is A. On-demand self-service.
NEW QUESTION # 321
Mirai malware targets IoT devices. After infiltration, it uses them to propagate and create botnets that are then used to launch which types of attack?
- A. Password attack
- B. MITM attack
- C. DDoS attack
- D. Birthday attack
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 322
A regional law firm authorizes a wireless resilience evaluation after employees report intermittent connectivity disruptions in conference rooms. An ethical hacker assigned to the assessment analyzes client behavior while transmitting carefully crafted 802.11 management frames toward the organization's primary access point.
Each transmission immediately causes several connected laptops to lose association with the network, requiring users to reconnect manually. Connectivity interruptions occur only when the crafted frames are sent.
Identify the wireless attack illustrated by this activity.
- A. Eavesdropping Attack
- B. Jamming Attack
- C. Deauthentication Attack
- D. Evil Twin Attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Deauthentication Attack.
A deauthentication attack is used to forcibly disconnect wireless clients that are actively associated with an access point. The referenced CEH wireless material describes a deauthentication attack as an attack used to forcefully disconnect users who are actively connected on the target access point, and identifies it as a type of denial-of-service attack .
The scenario states that crafted 802.11 management frames are sent toward the access point and that connected laptops immediately lose association and must reconnect. This behavior directly matches a deauthentication attack.
Option A. Eavesdropping Attack is incorrect because eavesdropping involves capturing or monitoring wireless traffic, not forcing clients to disconnect.
Option B. Jamming Attack is incorrect because jamming disrupts wireless communication by creating radio- frequency interference. The scenario describes crafted management frames, not RF interference.
Option D. Evil Twin Attack is incorrect because an Evil Twin attack involves creating a rogue access point that imitates a legitimate access point to lure users into connecting.
Therefore, the best answer is C. Deauthentication Attack.
NEW QUESTION # 323
During a red team assessment at a banking client in Chicago, ethical hacker David gains access to the internal LAN. He sets up a test machine and injects crafted messages into the network.
Soon, all traffic between a finance workstation and the authentication server is silently routed through his system without changing switch configurations. He observes usernames and passwords passing through his interface, even though no proxy or VPN is in use. Which sniffing technique did David most likely use?
- A. Switch Port Stealing
- B. STP Attack
- C. ARP Spoofing
- D. IRDP Spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Injecting crafted messages to redirect traffic through the attacker's machine, allowing capture of credentials without modifying switch configurations, indicates ARP spoofing, which poisons the ARP cache to intercept LAN traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 324
Which of the following is assured by the use of a hash?
- A. Availability
- B. Integrity
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
A cryptographic hash function is used to ensure data integrity. It generates a fixed-length output (digest) from any size of input data. If the data is modified in any way, the resulting hash will change. This allows systems to detect data tampering, ensuring that the data remains unaltered from its original form.
Reference - CEH v13 Official Study Guide:
Module 20: Cryptography
Quote:
"Hash functions are used to ensure the integrity of a message or file by producing a unique digest that changes if the data is modified." Incorrect Options:
A). Authentication ensures identity, not data integrity.
B). Confidentiality is achieved via encryption, not hashing.
C). Availability pertains to system uptime and accessibility, not hashes.
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NEW QUESTION # 325
A user on your Windows 2000 network has discovered that he can use L0phtcrack to sniff the SMB exchanges which carry user logons. The user is plugged into a hub with 23 other systems.
However, he is unable to capture any logons though he knows that other users are logging in.
What do you think is the most likely reason behind this?
- A. There is a NIDS present on that segment.
- B. Kerberos is preventing it.
- C. L0phtcrack only sniffs logons to web servers.
- D. Windows logons cannot be sniffed.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 326
Lily, a network security analyst at a regional healthcare provider, is preparing defenses ahead of a scheduled external vulnerability assessment. During internal simulation drills, she observes that scanners are successfully identifying open ports and service banners across critical systems. Tasked with reducing exposure to such reconnaissance efforts, Lily is instructed to apply measures that specifically hinder port scanning activity without disrupting legitimate traffic.
Which of the following actions should Lily implement?
- A. Block inbound ICMP message types and all outbound ICMP type 3 unreachable messages
- B. Configure firewall and IDS rules to detect and block probes
- C. Use a custom rule set to lock down the network, block unwanted ports at the firewall, and filter specific ports
- D. Block unwanted services running on the ports and update the service versions
Answer: B
Explanation:
C: Configuring firewall and IDS rules to detect and block probes is the most direct and CEH-aligned countermeasure for hindering port scanning while preserving legitimate traffic. Port scans typically generate recognizable patterns such as many connection attempts across multiple ports in a short time window, repeated SYN packets, abnormal TCP flag combinations, or sequential targeting of hosts and ports. An IDS or IPS can detect these behaviors using thresholds and signatures and then alert or actively block the scanning source through shunning, dynamic ACL updates, or automated firewall integration. This approach focuses on stopping the reconnaissance activity itself, rather than only addressing the symptoms after exposure has already occurred.Option B is partially valid because blocking unwanted ports at the firewall reduces the attack surface, but it is primarily hardening and exposure reduction. It does not necessarily hinder scanning behavior, and overly broad filtering can unintentionally block legitimate services if not carefully scoped. Option A improves security by removing unnecessary services and patching, but scanning can still occur and banners may still be collected from required services. Option D is not appropriate because blocking ICMP type 3 unreachable messages can interfere with normal network operations, troubleshooting, and path MTU discovery, and it does not reliably stop modern scanning techniques that use TCP-based probing.
Therefore, the best action specifically aimed at disrupting port scanning activity with minimal impact on legitimate traffic is tuning firewall and IDS controls to detect and block scan probes.
NEW QUESTION # 327
Which of the following are well known password-cracking programs?
- A. John the Ripper
- B. Jack the Ripper
- C. Netbus
- D. L0phtcrack
- E. NetCat
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 328
A smart building management company in Seattle, Washington deploys wireless door sensors and badge-based access systems throughout its corporate headquarters. During a security assessment, an analyst captures legitimate radio transmissions between employee access badges and the entry control units.
Later that evening, without modifying or decrypting the original communication, the analyst retransmits the previously captured signal toward a secured entrance. The access control system accepts the transmission as valid and unlocks the door, even though the legitimate badge is not present.
Determine the attack technique demonstrated in this assessment.
- A. BlueBorne Attack
- B. Rolling Code Attack
- C. Replay Attack
- D. Sybil Attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
The analyst reuses a previously captured valid radio transmission and successfully gains unauthorized access because the system accepts it as fresh authentication data. This is a replay attack, where intercepted legitimate communications are retransmitted to impersonate a valid user or device.
NEW QUESTION # 329
Gregory, a professional penetration tester working at Sys Security Ltd., is tasked with performing a security test of web applications used in the company. For this purpose, Gregory uses a tool to test for any security loopholes by hijacking a session between a client and server. This tool has a feature of intercepting proxy that can be used to inspect and modify the traffic between the browser and target application. This tool can also perform customized attacks and can be used to test the randomness of session tokens. Which of the following tools is used by Gregory in the above scenario?
- A. Burp Suite
- B. CxSAST
- C. Wireshark
- D. Nmap
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 330
Bob, a system administrator at TPNQM SA, concluded one day that a DMZ is not needed if he properly configures the firewall to allow access just to servers/ports, which can have direct internet access, and block the access to workstations.
Bob also concluded that DMZ makes sense just when a stateful firewall is available, which is not the case of TPNQM SA.
In this context, what can you say?
- A. Bob is totally wrong. DMZ is always relevant when the company has internet servers and workstations
- B. Bob is partially right. DMZ does not make sense when a stateless firewall is available
- C. Bob is partially right. He does not need to separate networks if he can create rules by destination IPs, one by one
- D. Bob can be right since DMZ does not make sense when combined with stateless firewalls
Answer: A
Explanation:
A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is a physical or logical subnet that separates an internal local area network (LAN) from untrusted networks-typically the Internet. It allows an organization to provide external-facing services while isolating internal systems from direct exposure.
From CEH v13 Official Courseware:
Module 13: Hacking Web Applications
Module 14: Hacking Web Servers
Module 1: Introduction to Ethical Hacking - Security Architecture Concepts CEH v13 clearly outlines:
"A DMZ is critical when deploying Internet-facing servers such as web servers, FTP servers, or mail servers.
It provides a buffer zone that allows public access to specific resources while keeping the internal network isolated." Bob's assumption is flawed for several reasons:
DMZs can be implemented even with stateless firewalls using strict access control rules.
Relying solely on IP-based filtering is error-prone and doesn't offer layered defense.
A DMZ provides an essential layer of segmentation, protecting internal assets from compromised public servers.
Incorrect Options:
A/D: DMZ can still make sense even with stateless firewalls if properly configured.
B: IP filtering is insufficient as a sole security measure; does not replace the need for network segmentation.
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 1 & 14 # Topic: DMZ Design and PurposeNIST SP 800-41 Rev.
1 - Guidelines on Firewalls and Firewall Policy
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NEW QUESTION # 331
Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessment on cloud services to identify any loopholes. He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an IaaS.
What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario?
- A. Cloud cryptojacking
- B. Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack
- C. Metadata spoofing attack
- D. Cloudborne attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
In CEH v13 Module 16: Cloud Computing and Container Security, Cloudborne attacks are described as threats specific to bare-metal cloud infrastructure.
Characteristics of a Cloudborne Attack:
Targets firmware-level vulnerabilities in reused physical servers.
Malware or backdoors can persist even after VM or OS reinstallation.
Can lead to compromise of new tenants or clients once servers are reallocated.
First highlighted in Project X by Eclypsium.
Option Clarification:
A: MITC: Exploits synchronization in cloud storage, not firmware.
B: Cryptojacking: Mining cryptocurrency using cloud resources.
C: Cloudborne attack: Correct - targets firmware on bare-metal cloud servers.
D: Metadata spoofing: Exploits cloud instance metadata services, unrelated to firmware.
Reference:
Module 16 - Advanced Cloud Attacks # Cloudborne Threats
CEH eBook: Firmware-Level Threats in Cloud Environments
NEW QUESTION # 332
Noah, a security analyst at a Seattle-based healthcare provider, is responding to a real-time data breach where attackers accessed patient records stored on a compromised server. During incident response, he must quickly secure sensitive files located on the system's primary storage to prevent further exfiltration. The data resides in a mounted partition that needs full-volume encryption, but standard file encryption isn't sufficient. Noah selects a solution that supports encrypted containers, strong key lengths like 256-bit AES, and can conceal secure volumes within standard ones to reduce detection. His goal is to ensure confidentiality while forensic operations continue without disrupting system functionality.
Which disk encryption tool should Noah deploy to meet these objectives?
- A. VeraCrypt
- B. Rohos Disk Encryption
- C. FileVault
- D. BitLocker Drive Encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best match is VeraCrypt because the scenario explicitly requires three capabilities commonly associated with it in CEH cryptography and data protection coverage: encrypted containers, strong modern ciphers such as AES with 256-bit keys, and the ability to hide a protected volume inside another volume to reduce detectability. VeraCrypt is a successor to TrueCrypt and is widely referenced in ethical hacking curricula as a practical disk encryption utility that can create encrypted file containers and encrypt entire partitions or drives.
It supports multiple algorithms and combinations, including AES-256, and can mount encrypted containers as virtual drives so applications can access data normally while it remains encrypted at rest.
The key distinguishing requirement is concealment of secure storage using hidden volumes. VeraCrypt supports plausible deniability by allowing a hidden volume to exist inside an outer encrypted volume. If compelled to reveal a password, a user can disclose the outer volume password while the hidden volume remains undetectable without its separate credentials. The prompt's phrase "conceal secure volumes within standard ones" maps directly to this VeraCrypt feature and is not a standard capability of BitLocker or FileVault.
BitLocker and FileVault provide strong full-disk encryption, but they do not provide hidden volumes for plausible deniability. Rohos can create encrypted containers, but hidden-volume style plausible deniability is most strongly and commonly associated with VeraCrypt in CEH-oriented discussions. Therefore, VeraCrypt is the most appropriate tool for Noah's stated objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 333
Rebecca, a security professional, wants to authenticate employees who use web services for safe and secure communication. In this process, she employs a component of the Web Service Architecture, which is an extension of SOAP, and it can maintain the integrity and confidentiality of SOAP messages.
Which of the following components of the Web Service Architecture is used by Rebecca for securing the communication?
- A. WSDL
- B. WS-Security
- C. WS-Policy
- D. WS Work Processes
Answer: B
Explanation:
WS-Security (Web Services Security) is a protocol specification that provides a means for securing SOAP- based messages. It defines how to add authentication, encryption, and digital signatures to SOAP headers, helping ensure message integrity and confidentiality.
According to CEH v13 Official Courseware:
WS-Security is an extension of SOAP.
It supports features such as:
Authentication via tokens (e.g., username, X.509)
Message integrity via digital signatures
Message confidentiality via XML encryption
Incorrect Options:
A). WSDL (Web Services Description Language) describes the web service interface but does not provide security.
B). WS Work Processes is not a defined web service security standard.
C). WS-Policy allows expressing security requirements, but enforcement is handled by WS-Security.
Reference - CEH v13 Official Courseware:
Module 14: Hacking Web Applications
Section: "Web Services Security"
Subsection: "WS-* Standards"
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NEW QUESTION # 334
The company ABC recently contracts a new accountant. The accountant will be working with the financial statements. Those financial statements need to be approved by the CFO and then they will be sent to the accountant but the CFO is worried because he wants to be sure that the information sent to the accountant was not modified once he approved it. Which of the following options can be useful to ensure the integrity of the data?
- A. The financial statements can be sent twice, one by email and the other delivered in USB and the accountant can compare both to be sure is the same document
- B. The CFO can use a hash algorithm in the document once he approved the financial statements
- C. The CFO can use an excel file with a password
- D. The document can be sent to the accountant using an exclusive USB for that document
Answer: B
Explanation:
Hashing algorithms (such as SHA-256 or MD5) are used to generate a unique digital fingerprint of a file or message. Once the CFO approves the financial statement, generating a hash value for the document ensures that if any modification occurs (even a single bit), the hash value will change, indicating a breach in data integrity.
This solution directly addresses integrity - one of the three components of the CIA triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability). Password protection or transferring via USB does not ensure integrity; they offer access control and delivery security.
Reference:
CEH v13 eCourseware - Module 20: Cryptography # "Hash Functions"
CEH v13 Study Guide - Chapter: Cryptographic Controls # Data Integrity with Hashes
NEW QUESTION # 335
You are a cybersecurity analyst at a financial institution. Your company has a strict policy against any unencrypted protocols. You've noticed some data packets being sent via HTTP rather than HTTPS on the network. This raises your concern because HTTP is a protocol that sends data in plaintext. To further investigate this matter, you decide to use a sniffing tool. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice?
- A. Netcat
- B. Nessus
- C. Wireshark
- D. Nmap
Answer: C
Explanation:
Wireshark is a packet sniffing and protocol analysis tool that allows real-time capture and inspection of network traffic, making it ideal for detecting and analyzing unencrypted HTTP packets transmitted in plaintext.
NEW QUESTION # 336
What type of virus is most likely to remain undetected by antivirus software?
- A. Cavity virus
- B. File-extension virus
- C. Stealth virus
- D. Macro virus
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 337
At a Chicago-based healthcare provider, security engineer Emily reviews the migration of critical applications to a cloud service. During her evaluation, she notes that administrators can provision new servers, increase storage, and expand compute power instantly through a web dashboard without any manual involvement from the cloud provider. Which NIST-defined characteristic of cloud computing best explains this capability?
- A. Resource pooling
- B. Measured service
- C. On-demand self-service
- D. Broad network access
Answer: C
Explanation:
The ability for administrators to provision and adjust computing resources instantly through a web interface without provider intervention exemplifies on-demand self-service, a core NIST cloud computing characteristic.
NEW QUESTION # 338
While evaluating a smart card implementation, a security analyst observes that an attacker is measuring fluctuations in power consumption and timing variations during encryption operations on the chip. The attacker uses this information to infer secret keys used within the device. What type of exploitation is being carried out?
- A. Force session resets through input flooding
- B. Crack hashes using statistical collisions
- C. Disrupt control flow to modify instructions
- D. Observe hardware signals to deduce secrets
Answer: D
Explanation:
CEH v13 explains that Side-Channel Attacks exploit physical characteristics of cryptographic devices-such as power consumption, timing variations, electromagnetic leakage, or acoustic emissions-to infer confidential data like encryption keys. These attacks do not break the cryptographic algorithm itself but instead analyze unintended signals produced during computation. The scenario describes a classic power analysis and timing analysis attack, where the attacker monitors fluctuations during encryption operations on a smart card. CEH details how Differential Power Analysis (DPA) and Simple Power Analysis (SPA) allow attackers to extract secret keys by statistically correlating measured power traces to cryptographic operations.
This type of attack is extremely dangerous because it bypasses mathematical strength and targets hardware implementation flaws. Options A, C, and D do not relate to side-channel exploitation. CEH specifically categorizes this method as observing hardware emissions to deduce secrets, making Option B the most accurate match.
NEW QUESTION # 339
Following reports of inconsistent IP-to-MAC mappings on an internal access switch at a manufacturing company in Detroit, Michigan, the network security team enabled additional validation controls.
Soon afterward, the switch began automatically discarding certain ARP replies that did not match previously recorded IP address assignments. Log entries indicated that packets were being denied due to validation failures tied to existing address-to-port mappings learned earlier from legitimate host configuration traffic.
Which switch-level security feature is most likely responsible for enforcing this ARP validation behavior?
- A. Enabling DHCP Snooping to track address assignments
- B. Configuring BPDU Guard to protect spanning-tree topology
- C. Activating Dynamic ARP Inspection to validate ARP packets
- D. Displaying the DHCP Snooping binding table for verification
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Activating Dynamic ARP Inspection to validate ARP packets.
The scenario describes a switch discarding ARP replies that do not match known IP-to-MAC and address-to- port bindings. This is the function of Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI).
CEH-aligned sniffing and ARP defense material states that Dynamic ARP Inspection is used with DHCP snooping, where IP-to-MAC bindings are tracked from DHCP transactions to protect against ARP poisoning.
It also notes that DHCP snooping is required to build the MAC-to-IP bindings used for DAI validation . The same material lists the configuration command ip arp inspection vlan < vlan number > and the verification command show ip arp inspection .
Option B is incorrect because displaying the DHCP snooping table only verifies bindings; it does not enforce ARP validation.
Option C is incorrect because DHCP Snooping builds the trusted binding database, but DAI is the feature that validates and drops invalid ARP packets.
Option D is incorrect because BPDU Guard protects spanning-tree edge ports from unexpected BPDUs. It does not validate ARP packets.
Therefore, the best answer is A. Activating Dynamic ARP Inspection to validate ARP packets.
NEW QUESTION # 340
John is investigating web-application firewall logs and observers that someone is attempting to inject the following:
char buff[10];
buff[>o] - 'a':
What type of attack is this?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. CSRF
- C. XSS
- D. SQL injection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Buffer overflow this attack is an anomaly that happens when software writing data to a buffer overflows the buffer's capacity, leading to adjacent memory locations being overwritten. In other words, an excessive amount of information is being passed into a container that doesn't have enough space, which information finishes up replacing data in adjacent containers.
Buffer overflows are often exploited by attackers with a goal of modifying a computer's memory so as to undermine or take hold of program execution.
What's a buffer?
A buffer, or data buffer, is a neighborhood of physical memory storage wont to temporarily store data while it' s being moved from one place to a different . These buffers typically sleep in RAM memory. Computers frequently use buffers to assist improve performance; latest hard drives cash in of buffering to efficiently access data, and lots of online services also use buffers. for instance , buffers are frequently utilized in online video streaming to stop interruption. When a video is streamed, the video player downloads and stores perhaps 20% of the video at a time during a buffer then streams from that buffer. This way, minor drops in connection speed or quick service disruptions won't affect the video stream performance.
Buffers are designed to contain specific amounts of knowledge . Unless the program utilizing the buffer has built-in instructions to discard data when an excessive amount of is shipped to the buffer, the program will overwrite data in memory adjacent to the buffer.
Buffer overflows are often exploited by attackers to corrupt software. Despite being well-understood, buffer overflow attacks are still a serious security problem that torment cyber-security teams. In 2014 a threat referred to as 'heartbleed' exposed many many users to attack due to a buffer overflow vulnerability in SSL software.
How do attackers exploit buffer overflows?
An attacker can deliberately feed a carefully crafted input into a program which will cause the program to undertake and store that input during a buffer that isn't large enough, overwriting portions of memory connected to the buffer space. If the memory layout of the program is well-defined, the attacker can deliberately overwrite areas known to contain executable code. The attacker can then replace this code together with his own executable code, which may drastically change how the program is meant to figure .
For example if the overwritten part in memory contains a pointer (an object that points to a different place in memory) the attacker's code could replace that code with another pointer that points to an exploit payload.
this will transfer control of the entire program over to the
attacker's code.
NEW QUESTION # 341
A "Server-Side Includes" attack refers to the exploitation of a web application by injecting scripts in HTML pages or executing arbitrary code remotely.
Which web-page file type, if it exists on the web server, is a strong indication that the server is vulnerable to this kind of attack?
- A. .stm
- B. .cms
- C. .html
- D. .rss
Answer: A
Explanation:
In CEH v13 Module 13: Hacking Web Applications, Server-Side Includes (SSI) is defined as a method for dynamically generating web content through directives embedded in HTML files.
stm File Extension:
Associated with Server Side Includes (SSI).
Files like .stm, .shtml, and .shtm can embed server-side directives.
Vulnerable if user input is improperly handled, allowing command injection or arbitrary file access.
Option Clarification:
A: .stm: Correct - indicates SSI is enabled.
B: .html: Static file, not associated with SSI.
C: .rss: XML feed; irrelevant to SSI.
D: .cms: Generic; doesn't indicate SSI functionality.
Reference:
Module 13 - Server-Side Vulnerabilities
CEH iLabs: Exploiting SSI with .stm files
NEW QUESTION # 342
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