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Exam Difficulty
When preparing for the CAP certification exam, the real world experience is required to stand a reasonable chance of passing the CAP exam. ISC recommended study material does not replace the requirement for experience. So, It is very difficult for the candidate to pass the CAP exam without experience.
NEW QUESTION # 21
An Authorizing Official plays the role of an approver. What are the responsibilities of an Authorizing Official?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Ascertaining the security posture of the organization's information system
- B. Determining the requirement of reauthorization and reauthorizing information systems when required
- C. Reviewing security status reports and critical security documents
- D. Establishing and implementing the organization's continuous monitoring program
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following Google Dorks can be used for finding directory listing on victim-app.com?
- A. None of the above
- B. intitle:"Index of" site:victim-app.com
- C. Both A and B
- D. intext:"Index of" site:victim-app.com
Answer: C
Explanation:
Google Dorks are advanced search operators used to find specific information or vulnerabilities on the web.
Directory listing vulnerabilities occur when a web server exposes the contents of a directory (e.g., file names, paths) due to misconfiguration. The operators intitle: and intext: are used to search for specific terms in the title or body of web pages, respectively, combined with site: to limit the search to a specific domain.
* Option A ("intitle:'Index of' site:victim-app.com"): Correct, as intitle:"Index of" targets pages with
"Index of" in the title, a common indicator of directory listings, and site:victim-app.com restricts the search to that domain.
* Option B ("intext:'Index of' site:victim-app.com"): Correct, as intext:"Index of" searches for "Index of" within the page content, another reliable indicator of directory listings, combined with the domain restriction.
* Option C ("Both A and B"): Correct, as both intitle: and intext: can effectively identify directory listings, making this the most comprehensive answer.
* Option D ("None of the above"): Incorrect, as both A and B are valid Google Dorks for this purpose.
The correct answer is C, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "Reconnaissance Techniques" and "Google Dorking."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "Information Gathering," "Google Hacking," and
"OWASP Testing Guide" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response. Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk responses she has created?
- A. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking
- B. The level of detail is set by historical information.
- C. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk.
- D. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
NEW QUESTION # 24
You are preparing to complete the quantitative risk analysis process with your project team and several subject matter experts. You gather the necessary inputs including the project's cost management plan. Why is it necessary to include the project's cost management plan in the preparation for the quantitative risk analysis process?
- A. The project's cost management plan provides direction on how costs may be changed due to identified risks.
- B. The project's cost management plan can help you to determine what the total cost of the project is allowed to be.
- C. The project's cost management plan provides control that may help determine the structure for quantitative analysis of the budget.
- D. The project's cost management plan is not an input to the quantitative risk analysis process .
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 25
You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project's success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization's profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event's probability and impact as early as possible in the project.
Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?
- A. Risk-reward mentality
- B. Risk utility function
- C. Mitigation-ready project management
- D. Risk avoidance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements?
- A. Five Pillars model
- B. Parkerian Hexad
- C. Communications Management Plan
- D. Classic information security model
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
NEW QUESTION # 27
A Web-based credit card company had collected financial and personal details of Mark before issuing him a credit card. The company has now provided Mark's financial and personal details to another company. Which of the following Internet laws has the credit card issuing company violated?
- A. Privacy law
- B. Trademark law
- C. Security law
- D. Copyright law
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 28
You are the project manager of the GGG project. You have completed the risk identification process for the initial phases of your project. As you begin to document the risk events in the risk register what additional information can you associate with the identified risk events?
- A. Risk potential responses
- B. Risk schedule
- C. Risk cost
- D. Risk owner
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the role of a data owner and the role of a data custodian?
- A. The custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the operations manager.
- B. The datacustodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the data owner.
- C. The data owner implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the custodian.
- D. The custodian makes the initialinformation classification assignments, and the operations manager implements the scheme.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following RMF phases identifies key threats and vulnerabilities that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the institutional critical assets?
- A. Phase 3
- B. Phase 1
- C. Phase 2
- D. Phase 0
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 31
What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and documenting changes created to the project scope?
- A. Scope Verification
- B. Integrated Change Control
- C. Configuration Management System
- D. Project Management Information System
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
NEW QUESTION # 32
Sammy is the project manager for her organization. She would like to rate each risk based on its probability and affect on time, cost, and scope. Harry, a project team member, has never done this before and thinks Sammy is wrong to attempt this approach. Harry says that an accumulative risk score should be created, not three separate risk scores. Who is correct in this scenario?
- A. Sammy is correct, because she is the project manager.
- B. Harry is correct, because the risk probability and impact considers all objectives of the project.
- C. Harry is correct, the risk probability and impact matrix is the only approach to risk assessment.
- D. Sammy is correct, because organizations can create risk scores for each objective of the project.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
NEW QUESTION # 33
Amy is the project manager for her company. In her current project the organization has a very low tolerance for risk events that will affect the project schedule. Management has asked Amy to consider the affect of all the risks on the project schedule. What approach can Amy take to create a bias against risks that will affect the schedule of the project?
- A. She can create an overall project rating scheme to reflect the bias towards risks that affect the project schedule.
- B. She can filter all risks based on their affect on schedule versus other project objectives.
- C. She can have the project team pad their time estimates to alleviate delays in the project schedule.
- D. She can shift risk-laden activities that affect the project schedule from the critical path as much as possible.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 34
David is the project manager of HGF project for his company. David, the project team, and several key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk analysis. Tracy, a project team member, does not understand why they need to complete qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following is the best explanation for completing qualitative risk analysis?
- A. It is a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for the plan risk responses and lays the foundation for quantitative analysis.
- B. Qualitative risk analysis helps segment the project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and create fast and accurate risk responses.
- C. All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.
- D. It is a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for the project risks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
NEW QUESTION # 35
The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. What are the process activities of this phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Assessment of the Analysis Results
- B. Configuring refinement of the SSAA
- C. Registration
- D. Certification analysis
- E. System development
Answer: A,B,D,E
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following attributes is NOT used to secure the cookie?
- A. Same-Site
- B. HttpOnly
- C. Secure
- D. Restrict
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cookies can have security attributes to protect them against various attacks. Let's evaluate each option to determine which attribute is not used to secure cookies:
* Option A ("HttpOnly"): The HttpOnly attribute prevents cookies from being accessed by JavaScript (e.g., via document.cookie). This mitigates XSS attacks that attempt to steal session cookies, making it a valid security attribute.
* Option B ("Secure"): The Secure attribute ensures that the cookie is only sent over HTTPS connections, preventing it from being transmitted over unencrypted HTTP. This protects against interception (e.g., in a man-in-the-middle attack), making it a valid security attribute.
* Option C ("Restrict"): There is no standard cookie attribute called Restrict. Cookie security attributes are well-defined (e.g., HttpOnly, Secure, SameSite), and Restrict does not exist in this context. This is not a valid attribute for securing cookies.
* Option D ("Same-Site"): The SameSite attribute (e.g., SameSite=Strict or SameSite=Lax)controls whether a cookie is sent with cross-site requests. It helps mitigate CSRF attacks by ensuring the cookie is only sent with same-site requests (or limited cross-site scenarios), making it a valid security attribute.
The correct answer is C, as Restrict is not a recognized cookie attribute, aligning with the CAP syllabus under
"Cookie Security" and "Session Management."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "Cookie Security Attributes," "Session Security," and "OWASP Session Management Cheat Sheet" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A high-profile, high-priority project within your organization is being created. Management wants you to pay special attention to the project risks and do all that you can to ensure that all of the risks are identified early in the project. Management has to ensure that this project succeeds.
Management's risk aversion in this project is associated with what term?
- A. Quantitative risk analysis
- B. Utility function
- C. Risk conscience
- D. Risk mitigation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 38
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
- A. Risk management plan
- B. Risk register
- C. Enterprise environmental factors
- D. Cost management plan
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 39
Wendy is about to perform qualitative risk analysis on the identified risks within her project. Which one of the following will NOT help Wendy to perform this project management activity?
- A. Risk management plan
- B. Risk register
- C. Project scope statement
- D. Stakeholder register
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 40
Multifactor authentication will NOT be able to prevent:
- A. Path Traversal Vulnerability
- B. Cross-Site Request Forgery Vulnerability
- C. All of the above
- D. Cross-Site Scripting Vulnerability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multifactor Authentication (MFA) enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification (e.g., something you know, like a password, and something you have, like a one-time code) to authenticate a user. It is effective against attacks that rely on stolen credentials, but let's evaluate its impact on the listed vulnerabilities:
* Option A ("Cross-Site Scripting Vulnerability"): XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) involves injecting malicious scripts into a web application that execute in the victim's browser. MFA does not prevent XSS because it occurs after authentication; an attacker can exploit XSS to steal session cookies or perform actions on behalf of the authenticated user, bypassing MFA's protection.
* Option B ("Cross-Site Request Forgery Vulnerability"): CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) tricks a user's browser into making unintended requests to a site where they are authenticated. MFA does not prevent CSRF because the attack leverages the user's existing session (post-authentication). The browser automatically sends cookies (e.g., session cookies) with the forged request, and MFA does not interfere with this process.
* Option C ("Path Traversal Vulnerability"): Path Traversal allows an attacker to manipulate file paths (e.g., ../../etc/passwd) to access unauthorized files on the server. MFA does not prevent this because it is an application-level vulnerability unrelated to user authentication; an attacker with or without credentials can exploit it if the application fails to validate input.
* Option D ("All of the above"): Correct, as MFA is designed to secure the authentication process, not to mitigate vulnerabilities like XSS, CSRF, or Path Traversal, which exploit application logic or session management after authentication.
The correct answer is D, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "Multifactor Authentication" and "Application Security Vulnerabilities."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "MFA Implementation," "XSS/CSRF
/Path Traversal Mitigation," and "OWASP Authentication Cheat Sheet" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 41
ISO 17799 has two parts. The first part is an implementation guide with guidelines on how to build a comprehensive information security infrastructure and the second part is an auditing guide based on requirements that must be met for an organization to be deemed compliant with ISO 17799. What are the ISO
17799 domains?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Personnel security
- B. System architecture management
- C. System development and maintenance
- D. Information security policy for the organization
- E. Business continuity management
Answer: A,C,D,E
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
NEW QUESTION # 42
......
Security Controls Selection (15%):
- Appraise and endorse a security plan.
- Choose and modify security controls – This covers the skills in determining the relevant use of overlays and applicability of the recommended baseline. It also covers the ability of documenting the applicability of security control;
- Classify and document inherited and baseline controls;
- Develop a monitoring strategy for security control;
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