Get 100% Authentic CompTIA CAS-004 Dumps with Correct Answers
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NEW QUESTION # 263
A startup software company recently updated its development strategy to incorporate the Software Development Life Cycle, including revamping the quality assurance and release processes for gold builds. Which of the following would most likely be developed FIRST as part of the overall strategy?
- A. Secure coding standards
- B. Code signing
- C. Application vetting
- D. Security requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
Security requirements are the foundational elements that dictate the security-related functionalities and constraints that the software must adhere to. By defining these requirements at the outset, all subsequent stages of the SDLC will have clear guidelines on the necessary security measures to incorporate. Once the security requirements are laid out, practices like secure coding standards, code signing, and application vetting would follow to ensure those requirements are met during development and deployment.
NEW QUESTION # 264
A security analyst notices a number of SIEM events that show the following activity:
Which of the following response actions should the analyst take FIRST?
- A. Disable local administrator privileges on the endpoints.
- B. Disable powershell.exe on all Microsoft Windows endpoints.
- C. Configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154.
- D. Restart Microsoft Windows Defender.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The SIEM events show that powershell.exe was executed on multiple endpoints with an outbound connection to 40.90.23.154, which is an IP address associated with malicious activity. This could indicate a malware infection or a command-and-control channel. The best response action is to configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154, which would prevent further communication with the malicious IP address. Disabling powershell.exe on all endpoints may not be feasible or effective, as it could affect legitimate operations and not remove the malware. Restarting Microsoft Windows Defender may not detect or stop the malware, as it could have bypassed or disabled it. Disabling local administrator privileges on the endpoints may not prevent the malware from running or communicating, as it could have escalated privileges or used other methods.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-forward-proxy https://partners.comptia.org/docs
/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 265
A municipal department receives telemetry data from a third-party provider. The server collecting telemetry sits in the municipal departments screened network and accepts connections from the third party over HTTPS. The daemon has a code execution vulnerability from a lack of input sanitization of out-of-bound messages, and therefore, the cybersecurity engineers would like to Implement risk mitigations. Which of the following actions, if combined, would BEST prevent exploitation of this vulnerability? (Choose two.)
- A. Implementing an EDR and alert on Identified privilege escalation attempts to the SIEM
- B. Implementing a TLS inspection proxy on-path to enable monitoring and policy enforcement
- C. Creating a Linux namespace on the telemetry server and adding to it the servicing HTTP daemon
- D. Using the published data schema to monitor and block off nominal telemetry messages
- E. Subscribing to a UTM service that enforces privacy controls between the internal network and the screened subnet
- F. Installing and configuring filesystem integrity monitoring service on the telemetry server
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
A TLS inspection proxy can be used to monitor and enforce policy on HTTPS connections, ensuring that only valid traffic is allowed through and malicious traffic is blocked. Additionally, a filesystem integrity monitoring service can be installed and configured on the telemetry server to monitor for any changes to the filesystem, allowing any malicious changes to be detected and blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 266
A home automation company just purchased and installed tools for its SOC to enable incident identification and response on software the company develops. The company would like to prioritize defenses against the following attack scenarios:
Unauthorized insertions into application development environments
Authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations Which of the following actions will enable the data feeds needed to detect these types of attacks on development environments? (Choose two.)
- A. Perform static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports.
- B. Implement an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations.
- C. Install an IDS on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services.
- D. Continuously monitor code commits to repositories and generate summary logs.
- E. Model user behavior and monitor for deviations from normal.
- F. Monitor dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Explanation
Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal and continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs are actions that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal is a technique that uses baselines, analytics, machine learning, or other methods to establish normal patterns of user activity and identify anomalies or outliers that could indicate malicious or suspicious behavior. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal can help detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments, as it can alert on unusual or unauthorized access attempts, commands, actions, or transactions by users. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs is a technique that uses tools, scripts, automation, or other methods to track and record changes made to code repositories by developers, testers, reviewers, or other parties involved in the software development process. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs can help detect authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, as it can audit and verify the source, time, reason, and impact of code changes made by authorized users. Performing static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect vulnerabilities, errors, bugs, or quality issues in committed code. Implementing an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to protect XML-based web services from threats or attacks by validating XML messages against predefined policies. Monitoring dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to identify outdated or vulnerable third-party libraries used in software development projects. Installing an IDS (intrusion detection system) on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes
NEW QUESTION # 267
A company has a website with a huge database. The company wants to ensure that a DR site could be brought online quickly in the event of a failover, and end users would miss no more than
30 minutes of data. Which of the following should the company do to meet these objectives?
- A. Store the nightly full backups at the DR site.
- B. Build a content caching system at the DR site.
- C. Increase the network bandwidth to the DR site.
- D. Implement real-time replication for the DR site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Real-time replication ensures that data is continuously mirrored to the DR site, minimizing data loss to within the recovery point objective (RPO) of 30 minutes.
NEW QUESTION # 268
A customer reports being unable to connect to a website at www.test.com to consume services. The customer notices the web application has the following published cipher suite:
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the customer's inability to connect?
- A. The public key should be using ECDSA.
- B. Weak ciphers are being used.
- C. The server name should be test.com.
- D. The default should be on port 80.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 269
A shipping company that is trying to eliminate entire classes of threats is developing an SELinux policy to ensure its custom Android devices are used exclusively for package tracking.
After compiling and implementing the policy, in which of the following modes must the company ensure the devices are configured to run?
- A. Permissive
- B. Protecting
- C. Enforcing
- D. Mandatory
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference: https://source.android.com/security/selinux/customize
SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) is a security module for Linux systems that provides mandatory access control (MAC) policies for processes and files. SELinux can operate in three modes:
Enforcing: SELinux enforces the MAC policies and denies access based on rules.
Permissive: SELinux does not enforce the MAC policies but only logs actions that would have been denied if running in enforcing mode.
Disabled: SELinux is turned off.
To ensure its custom Android devices are used exclusively for package tracking, the company must configure SELinux to run in enforcing mode. This mode will prevent any unauthorized actions or applications from running on the devices and protect them from potential threats or misuse. References: https://access.redhat.
com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/7/html/selinux_users_and_administrators_guide/chap- security-enhanced_linux-introduction#sect-Security-Enhanced_Linux-Modes https://source.android.com
/security/selinux
NEW QUESTION # 270
During an audit, it was determined from a sample that four out of 20 former employees were still accessing their email accounts.
An information security analyst is reviewing the access to determine if the audit was valid.
Which of the following would assist with the validation and provide the necessary documentation to audit?
- A. Examining the termination notification process from human resources and employee account access logs
- B. Sending a test email to the former employees to document an undeliverable email and review the ERP access
- C. Checking social media platforms for disclosure of company sensitive and proprietary information
- D. Reviewing the email global account list and the collaboration platform for recent activity
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 271
An organization's board of directors has asked the Chief Information Security Officer to build a third-party management program. Which of the following best explains a reason for this request?
- A. Supply chain visibility
- B. Support availability
- C. Risk transference
- D. Vulnerability management
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 272
An IoT device implements an encryption module built within its SoC, where the asymmetric private key has been defined in a write-once read-many portion of the SoC hardware. Which of the following should the IoT manufacture do if the private key is compromised?
- A. Release a patch for the SoC software.
- B. Replace the public portion of the IoT key on its servers.
- C. Use over-the-air updates to replace the private key.
- D. Manufacture a new IoT device with a redesigned SoC.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 273
A security administrator has been tasked with hardening a domain controller against lateral movement attacks.
Below is an output of running services:
Which of the following configuration changes must be made to complete this task?
- A. Stop the DNS Server service and set the startup type to disabled.
- B. Stop the Print Spooler service and set the startup type to disabled.
- C. Stop Credential Manager service and leave the startup type to disabled.
- D. Stop the Active Directory Web Services service and set the startup type to disabled.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stopping the Print Spooler service and setting the startup type to disabled is the best configuration change to harden a domain controller against lateral movement attacks. The Print Spooler service has been known to be vulnerable to remote code execution exploits that can allow attackers to gain access to domain controllers and other sensitive machines. Disabling this service can reduce the attack surface and prevent exploitation attempts.
NEW QUESTION # 274
A security engineer needs to implement a solution to increase the security posture of user endpoints by providing more visibility and control over local administrator accounts. The endpoint security team is overwhelmed with alerts and wants a solution that has minimal operational burdens. Additionally, the solution must maintain a positive user experience after implementation.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to meet these objectives?
- A. Implement Privileged Access Management (PAM), keep users in the local administrators group, and enable local administrator account monitoring.
- B. Implement PAM, remove users from the local administrators group, and prompt users for explicit approval when elevated privileges are required.
- C. Implement EDR, remove users from the local administrators group, and enable privilege escalation monitoring.
- D. Implement EDR, keep users in the local administrators group, and enable user behavior analytics.
Answer: B
Explanation:
PAM (Privileged Access Management) is a solution that can increase the security posture of user endpoints by providing more visibility and control over local administrator accounts. By implementing PAM, removing users from the local administrators group, and prompting users for explicit approval when elevated privileges are required, the security engineer can reduce the attack surface, prevent unauthorized access, and enforce the principle of least privilege. Implementing PAM, keeping users in the local administrators group, and enabling local administrator account monitoring may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as users could still abuse or compromise their privileges. Implementing EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as EDR is mainly focused on detecting and responding to threats, not managing privileges. Enabling user behavior analytics may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as user behavior analytics is mainly focused on identifying anomalies or risks in user activity, not managing privileges.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pam https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default- source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 275
SIMULATION
An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the following scenarios and instructions. Match each relevant finding to the affected host.
After associating scenario 3 with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.
Each finding may only be used once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 276
A security architect updated the security policy to require a proper way to verify that packets received between two parties have not been tampered with and the connection remains private.
Which of the following cryptographic techniques can be used to ensure the security policy is being enforced properly?
- A. PBKDF2
- B. HMAC_SHA256
- C. MD5-based envelope method
- D. PGP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The company should use HMAC SHA256 as a cryptographic technique to ensure that packets received between two parties have not been tampered with and the connection remains private.
HMAC stands for hash-based message authentication code, which is a method of generating a message authentication code using a cryptographic hash function and a secret key. HMAC can provide both integrity and authenticity of the packets, as well as resistance to replay attacks.
SHA256 is a specific hash function that produces a 256-bit output. SHA256 is considered secure and widely used in various cryptographic applications.
NEW QUESTION # 277
Which of the following is the reason why security engineers often cannot upgrade the security of embedded facility automation systems?
- A. They are constrained by available compute.
- B. They lack X86-64 processors.
- C. They are not logic-bearing devices.
- D. They lack EEPROM.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Embedded facility automation systems are often difficult to upgrade because they are constrained by available compute. These systems typically have limited processing power, memory, and storage, which restricts the ability to implement modern security measures, such as encryption, software updates, or advanced security controls. Security engineers may be unable to apply patches or updates without exceeding the system's capacity. CASP+ discusses the challenges posed by resource-constrained devices, particularly in embedded systems and IoT environments, where upgrading security can be difficult due to hardware limitations.
References:
CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 - Enterprise Security Architecture (Embedded System Security and Constraints) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Managing Security for Resource-Constrained Embedded Systems
NEW QUESTION # 278
The findings from a recent penetration test report indicate a systematic issue related to cross-site scripting (XSS). A security engineer would like to prevent this type of issue for future reports. Which of the following mitigation strategies should the engineer use to best resolve the issue?
- A. Configure a DAST tool for all applications.
- B. Request resources to develop a secure library to address encoding issues.
- C. Require all developers to take secure coding training that focuses on OWASP principles.
- D. Leverage an API management system to filter information.
- E. Implement static analysis with blocking capabilities in the CI/CD system.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Secure coding training focused on OWASP principlesis the most comprehensive long-term solution to address the root cause of XSS vulnerabilities by ensuring developers understand how to write secure code, including proper encoding and input validation.
Option A (Static analysis): This helps identify vulnerabilities in code but does not address the root cause.
Option B (Secure library): While useful, it does not tackle inconsistent secure coding practices across the team.
Option C (API management): This is more relevant for API-related security but does not resolve broader XSS issues.
Option D (DAST tool): Dynamic testing identifies issues in runtime but does not prevent them in development.
Reference:
CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 4.1: Analyze application vulnerabilities and implement secure coding best practices.
CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 8, Secure Application Development.
NEW QUESTION # 279
An organization recently experienced a ransomware attack. The security team leader is concerned about the attack reoccurring. However, no further security measures have been implemented.
Which of the following processes can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations?
- A. Detection
- B. Recovery
- C. Remediation
- D. Preparation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Preparation is the process that can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations after a security incident, such as a ransomware attack. Preparation involves planning and implementing security measures to prevent or mitigate future incidents, such as by updatingpolicies, procedures, or controls, conducting training or awareness campaigns, or acquiring new tools or resources. Detection is the process of discovering or identifying security incidents, not preventing them. Remediation is the process of containing or resolving security incidents, not preventing them. Recovery is the process of restoring normal operations after security incidents, not preventing them. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-incident-responsehttps://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resourc
NEW QUESTION # 280
city government's IT director was notified by the City council that the following cybersecurity requirements must be met to be awarded a large federal grant:
+ Logs for all critical devices must be retained for 365 days to enable monitoring and threat hunting.
+ All privileged user access must be tightly controlled and tracked to mitigate compromised accounts.
+ Ransomware threats and zero-day vulnerabilities must be quickly identified.
Which of the following technologies would BEST satisfy these requirements? (Select THREE).
- A. PAM
- B. Log aggregator
- C. Zero trust network access
- D. NGFW
- E. Cloud sandbox
- F. Endpoint protection
- G. SIEM
Answer: A,B,G
Explanation:
Explanation
B: Log aggregator: A log aggregator is a tool that collects, parses, and stores logs from various sources, such as devices, applications, servers, etc. A log aggregator can help meet the requirement of retaining logs for 365 days by providing a centralized and scalable storage solution1 .
D: PAM: PAM stands for privileged access management. It is a technology that controls and monitors the access of privileged users (such as administrators) to critical systems and data. PAM can help meet the requirement of controlling and tracking privileged user access by enforcing policies such as least privilege, multifactor authentication, password rotation, session recording, etc. .
F: SIEM: SIEM stands for security information and event management. It is a technology that analyzes and correlates logs from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. SIEM can help meet the requirement of identifying ransomware threats and zero-day vulnerabilities by providing real-time alerts, threat intelligence feeds, incident response workflows, etc. .
NEW QUESTION # 281
A developer implement the following code snippet.
Which of the following vulnerabilities does the code snippet resolve?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. SQL inject
- C. Information leakage
- D. Missing session limit
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SQL injection is a type of vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL commands on a database by inserting them into an input field. The code snippet resolves this vulnerability by using parameterized queries, which prevent the input from being interpreted as part of the SQL command. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide ,
https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection
NEW QUESTION # 282
A network administrator receives a ticket regarding an error from a remote worker who is trying to reboot a laptop. The laptop has not yet loaded the operating system, and the user is unable to continue the boot process.
The administrator is able to provide the user with a recovery PIN, and the user is able to reboot the system and access the device as needed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?
- A. Failure of TPM authentication
- B. Duration of the BitLocker lockout period
- C. Failure of the Kerberos time drift sync
- D. Lockout of privileged access account
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the error is the failure of TPM authentication. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component that stores encryption keys and other security information. TPM can be used by BitLocker to protect the encryption keys and verify the integrity of the boot process. If TPM fails to authenticate the laptop, BitLocker will enter recovery mode and ask for a recovery PIN, which is a 48-digit numerical password that can be used to unlock the system. The administrator should check the TPM status and configuration and make sure it is working properly. Verified References:
* https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/finding-your-bitlocker-recovery-key-in-windows-
6b71ad27-0b89-ea08-f143-056f5ab347d6
* https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/operating-system-security/data-protection/bitlocker
/bitlocker-recovery-guide-plan
* https://docs.sophos.com/esg/sgn/8-1/user/win/en-us/esg/SafeGuard-Enterprise/tasks
/BitLockerRecoveryKey.html
NEW QUESTION # 283
......
Following is the info about the Passing Score, Duration & Questions for the CompTIA CAS-004 Exam
Time Duration: 165 minutes
Languages: English, Japanese
The passing score: it's pass/fail only.
Number of Questions: 90 questions
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) certification exam, also known as CAS-004, is a globally recognized certification that validates advanced-level security skills and knowledge. The CASP+ certification is designed for IT professionals who have at least ten years of experience in IT administration, including five years of hands-on experience in technical security roles. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification exam covers a broad range of advanced security topics such as risk management, enterprise security architecture, research and collaboration, and integration of security controls for heterogeneous systems. The CASP+ certification is highly valued by employers as it demonstrates that the individual has the necessary skills and knowledge to lead and manage complex security projects.
Dumps of CAS-004 Cover all the requirements of the Real Exam: https://www.freepdfdump.top/CAS-004-valid-torrent.html
Correct Practice Tests of CAS-004 Dumps with Practice Exam: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1oxQHDrug2iTgOk1RyahQllTE39yuSSyL
