Certification Training for CISA Exam Dumps Test Engine [2024]
Mar 21, 2024 Step by Step Guide to Prepare for CISA Exam
NEW QUESTION # 179
________________ (fill in the blank) should be implemented as early as data preparation to support data integrity at the earliest point possible.
- A. Parity bits
- B. Authorization controls
- C. Control totals
- D. Authentication controls
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Control totals should be implemented as early as data preparation to support data integrity at the earliest point possible.
NEW QUESTION # 180
A computer system is no more secure than the human systems responsible for its operation. Malicious individuals have regularly penetrated well-designed, secure computer systems by taking advantage of the carelessness of trusted individuals, or by deliberately deceiving them.
zombie computers are being HEAVILY relied upon on by which of the following types of attack?
- A. Eavedropping
- B. None of the choices.
- C. ATP
- D. Social Engineering
- E. DDoS
- F. DoS
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks are common, where a large number of compromised hosts (""zombie computers"") are used to flood a target system with network requests, thus attempting to render it unusable through resource exhaustion.
NEW QUESTION # 181
An employee loses a mobile device resulting in loss of sensitive corporate data. Which of the following would have BEST prevented data leakage?
- A. Complex password policy for mobile devices
- B. Data encryption on the mobile device
- C. Awareness training for mobile device users
- D. The triggering of remote data wipe capabilities
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 182
Who should be responsible for network security operations?
- A. Security administrators
- B. Business unit managers
- C. Network administrators
- D. IS auditors
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Security administrators are usually responsible for network security operations.
NEW QUESTION # 183
Which of the following should an IS auditor be MOST concerned with when reviewing the IT asset disposal process?
- A. Certificate of destruction
- B. Data stored on the asset
- C. Monetary value of the asset
- D. Data migration to the new asset
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 184
Which of the following append themselves to files as a protection against viruses?
- A. Cyclical redundancy checkers (CRCs)
- B. Immunizers
- C. Behavior blockers
- D. Active monitors
Answer: B
Explanation:
I mmunizers defend against viruses by appending sections of themselves to files. They continuously check the file for changes and report changes as possible viral behavior. Behavior blockers focus on detecting potentially abnormal behavior, such as writing to the boot sector or the master boot record, or making changes to executable files. Cyclical redundancy checkers compute a binary number on a known virus-free program that is then stored in a database file. When that program is subsequently called to be executed, the checkers look for changes to the files, compare it to the database and report possible infection if changes have occurred. Active monitors interpret DOS and ROM basic input-output system (BIOS) calls, looking for virus-like actions.
NEW QUESTION # 185
Which of the following layer of an enterprise data flow architecture does the scheduling of the tasks necessary to build and maintain the Data Warehouse (DW) and also populates Data Marts?
- A. Desktop Access Layer
- B. Data preparation layer
- C. Warehouse management layer
- D. Data access layer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Warehouse Management Layer -The function of this layer is the scheduling of the tasks necessary to build and maintain the DW and populate data marts. This layer is also involved in administration of security.
For CISA exam you should know below information about business intelligence:
Business intelligence(BI) is a broad field of IT encompasses the collection and analysis of information to assist decision making and assess organizational performance. To deliver effective BI, organizations need to design and implement a data architecture. The complete data architecture consists of two components The enterprise data flow architecture (EDFA) A logical data architecture
Various layers/components of this data flow architecture are as follows:
Presentation/desktop access layer - This is where end users directly deal with information. This layer includes familiar desktop tools such as spreadsheets, direct querying tools, reporting and analysis suits offered by vendors such as Congas and business objects, and purpose built application such as balanced source cards and digital dashboards.
Data Source Layer - Enterprise information derives from number of sources:
Operational data - Data captured and maintained by an organization's existing systems, and usually held in system-specific database or flat files.
External Data - Data provided to an organization by external sources. This could include data such as customer demographic and market share information.
Nonoperational data - Information needed by end user that is not currently maintained in a computer accessible format.
Core data warehouse -This is where all the data of interest to an organization is captured and organized to assist reporting and analysis. DWs are normally instituted as large relational databases. A property constituted DW should support three basic form of an inquiry.
Drilling up and drilling down - Using dimension of interest to the business, it should be possible to aggregate data as well as drill down. Attributes available at the more granular levels of the warehouse can also be used to refine the analysis.
Drill across - Use common attributes to access a cross section of information in the warehouse such as sum sales across all product lines by customer and group of customers according to length of association with the company.
Historical Analysis - The warehouse should support this by holding historical, time variant data. An example of historical analysis would be to report monthly store sales and then repeat the analysis using only customer who were preexisting at the start of the year in order to separate the effective new customer from the ability to generate repeat business with existing customers.
Data Mart Layer- Data mart represents subset of information from the core DW selected and organized to meet the needs of a particular business unit or business line. Data mart can be relational databases or some form on-line analytical processing (OLAP) data structure.
Data Staging and quality layer -This layer is responsible for data copying, transformation into DW format and quality control. It is particularly important that only reliable data into core DW. This layer needs to be able to deal with problems periodically thrown by operational systems such as change to account number format and reuse of old accounts and customer numbers.
Data Access Layer -This layer operates to connect the data storage and quality layer with data stores in the data source layer and, in the process, avoiding the need to know to know exactly how these data stores are organized. Technology now permits SQL access to data even if it is not stored in a relational database.
Data Preparation layer -This layer is concerned with the assembly and preparation of data for loading into data marts. The usual practice is to per-calculate the values that are loaded into OLAP data repositories to increase access speed. Data mining is concern with exploring large volume of data to determine patterns and trends of information. Data mining often identifies patterns that are counterintuitive due to number and complexity of data relationships. Data quality needs to be very high to not corrupt the result.
Metadata repository layer - Metadata are data about data. The information held in metadata layer needs to extend beyond data structure names and formats to provide detail on business purpose and context. The metadata layer should be comprehensive in scope, covering data as they flow between the various layers, including documenting transformation and validation rules.
Warehouse Management Layer -The function of this layer is the scheduling of the tasks necessary to build and maintain the DW and populate data marts. This layer is also involved in administration of security.
Application messaging layer -This layer is concerned with transporting information between the various layers. In addition to business data, this layer encompasses generation, storage and targeted communication of control messages.
Internet/Intranet layer - This layer is concerned with basic data communication. Included here are browser based user interface and TCP/IP networking.
Various analysis models used by data architects/ analysis follows:
Activity or swim-lane diagram - De-construct business processes.
Entity relationship diagram -Depict data entities and how they relate. These data analysis methods obviously play an important part in developing an enterprise data model. However, it is also crucial that knowledgeable business operative are involved in the process. This way proper understanding can be obtained of the business purpose and context of the data. This also mitigates the risk of replication of suboptimal data configuration from existing systems and database into DW.
The following were incorrect answers:
Desktop access layer or presentation layer is where end users directly deal with information. This layer includes familiar desktop tools such as spreadsheets, direct querying tools, reporting and analysis suits offered by vendors such as Congas and business objects, and purpose built application such as balanced source cards and digital dashboards.
Data preparation layer -This layer is concerned with the assembly and preparation of data for loading into data marts. The usual practice is to per-calculate the values that are loaded into OLAP data repositories to increase access speed.
Data access layer - his layer operates to connect the data storage and quality layer with data stores in the data source layer and, in the process, avoiding the need to know to know exactly how these data stores are organized. Technology now permits SQL access to data even if it is not stored in a relational database.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 188
NEW QUESTION # 186
When auditing a disaster recovery plan for a critical business area, an IS auditor finds that it does not cover all the systems. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action for the IS auditor?
- A. Complete the audit of the systems covered by the existing disaster recovery plan.
- B. Postpone the audit until the systems are added to the disaster recovery plan.
- C. Alert management and evaluate the impact of not covering all systems.
- D. Cancel the audit.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
An IS auditor should make management aware that some systems are omitted from the disaster recovery plan. An IS auditor should continue the audit and include an evaluation of the impact of not including all systems in the disaster recovery plan. Cancelling the audit, ignoring the fact that some systems are not covered or postponing the audit are inappropriate actions to take.
NEW QUESTION # 187
Which of the following would be MOST useful when analyzing computer performance?
- A. Statistical metrics measuring capacity utilization
- B. Operations report of user dissatisfaction with response time
- C. Report of off-peak utilization and response time
- D. Tuning of system software to optimize resource usage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION # 188
A financial services organization is developing and documenting business continuity measures. In which of
the following cases would an IS auditor MOST likely raise an issue?
- A. The recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not take IT disaster recovery constraints into account, such as
personnel or system dependencies during the recovery phase. - B. The organization uses good practice guidelines instead of industry standards and relies on external
advisors to ensure the adequacy of the methodology. - C. The organization plans to rent a shared alternate site with emergency workplaces which has only
enough room for half of the normal staff. - D. The business continuity capabilities are planned around a carefully selected set of scenarios which
describe events that might happen with a reasonable probability.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
It is a common mistake to use scenario planning for business continuity. The problem is that it is
impossible to plan and document actions for every possible scenario. Planning for just selected scenarios
denies the fact that even improbable events can cause an organization to break down. Best practice
planning addresses the four possible areas of impact in a disaster: premises, people, systems, and
suppliers and other dependencies. All scenarios can be reduced to these four categories and can be
handled simultaneously. There are very few special scenarios which justify an additional separate analysis,
it is a good idea to use best practices and external advice for such an important topic, especially since
knowledge of the right level of preparedness and the judgment about adequacy of the measures taken is
not available in every organization. The recovery time objectives (RTOs) are based on the essential
business processes required to ensure the organization's survival, therefore it would be inappropriate for
them to be based on IT capabilities. Best practice guidelines recommend having 20%-40% of normal
capacity available at an emergency site; therefore, a value of 50% would not be a problem if there are no
additional factors.
NEW QUESTION # 189
Which of the following would BEST enable effective decision-making?
- A. Formalized acceptance of risk analysis by business management
- B. A universally applied list of generic threats impacts, and vulnerabilities
- C. A consistent process to analyze new and historical information risk
- D. Annualized loss estimates determined from past security events.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Governance and Management of IT
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 190
Which of the following needs be established FIRST in order to categorize data properly?
- A. A data asset inventory
- B. A data asset protection standard
- C. A data classification framework
- D. A data protection policy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION # 191
If enabled within firewall rules, which of the following services would present the GREATEST risk?
- A. Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)
- B. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP)
- C. Simple object access protocol (SOAP)
- D. File transfer protocol (FTP)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 192
A company has decided to implement an electronic signature scheme based on public key infrastructure. The user's private key will be stored on the computer's hard drive and protected by a password. The MOST significant risk of this approach is:
- A. use of the user's electronic signature by another person if the password is compromised.
- B. impersonation of a user by substitution of the user's public key with another person's public key.
- C. forgery by using another user's private key to sign a message with an electronic signature.
- D. forgery by substitution of another person's private key on the computer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The user's digital signature is only protected by a password. Compromise of the password would enable access to the signature. This is the most significant risk. Choice B would require subversion of the public key infrastructure mechanism, which is very difficult and least likely.
Choice C would require that the message appear to have come from a different person and therefore the true user's credentials would not be forged. Choice D has the same consequence as choice C.
NEW QUESTION # 193
Which of the following attack is also known as Time of Check(TOC)/Time of Use(TOU)?
- A. Eavesdropping
- B. Traffic analysis
- C. Race Condition
- D. Masquerading
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A Race Condition attack is also known as Time of Check(TOC)/Time of Use(TOU).
A race condition is when processes carry out their tasks on a shared resource in an incorrect order. A race condition is possible when two or more processes use a shared resource, as in data within a variable. It is important that the processes carry out their functionality in the correct sequence. If process 2 carried out its task on the data before process 1, the result will be much different than if process1 carried out its tasks on the data before process 2.
In software, when the authentication and authorization steps are split into two functions, there is a possibility an attacker could use a race condition to force the authorization step to be completed before the authentication step. This would be a flaw in the software that the attacker has figured out how to exploit. A race condition occurs when two or more processes use the same resource and the sequences of steps within the software can be carried out in an improper order, something that can drastically affect the output. So, an attacker can force the authorization step to take place before the authentication step and gain unauthorized access to a resource.
The following answers are incorrect:
Eavesdropping - is the act of secretly listening to the private conversation of others without their consent, as defined by Black's Law Dictionary. This is commonly thought to be unethical and there is an old adage that "eavesdroppers seldom hear anything good of themselves...eavesdroppers always try to listen to matters that concern them." Traffic analysis - is the process of intercepting and examining messages in order to deduce information from patterns in communication. It can be performed even when the messages are encrypted and cannot be decrypted. In general, the greater the number of messages observed, or even intercepted and stored, the more can be inferred from the traffic. Traffic analysis can be performed in the context of military intelligence, counter-intelligence, or pattern-of-life analysis, and is a concern in computer security.
Masquerading - A masquerade attack is an attack that uses a fake identity, such as a network identity, to gain unauthorized access to personal computer information through legitimate access identification. If an authorization process is not fully protected, it can become extremely vulnerable to a masquerade attack.
Masquerade attacks can be perpetrated using stolen passwords and logons, by locating gaps in programs, or by finding a way around the authentication process. The attack can be triggered either by someone within the organization or by an outsider if the organization is connected to a public network. The amount of access masquerade attackers get depends on the level of authorization they've managed to attain. As such, masquerade attackers can have a full smorgasbord of cyber crime opportunities if they've gained the highest access authority to a business organization. Personal attacks, although less common, can also be harmful.
Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 324
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 66
CISSP All-In-One Exam guide 6th Edition Page Number 161
NEW QUESTION # 194
Which of the following is a rewrite of ipfwadm?
- A. Netfilter
- B. ipchains
- C. ipcook
- D. iptables
- E. None of the choices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
ipchains is a free software based firewall running on earlier Linux. It is a rewrite of ipfwadm but is
superseded by iptables in Linux 2.4 and above. Iptables controls the packet filtering and NAT components
within the Linux kernel. It is based on Netfilter, a framework which provides a set of hooks within the Linux
kernel for intercepting and manipulating network packets.
NEW QUESTION # 195
Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence for use in a forensic investigation of an employee's hard drive?
- A. A file level copy of the hard drive
- B. Memory dump to an external hard drive
- C. Bit-stream copy of the hard drive
- D. Prior backups
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 196
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